Notice2025-06453

Victor Augusto Silva, M.D.; Order

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Published
April 16, 2025

Issuing agencies

Justice DepartmentDrug Enforcement Administration

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<title>Federal Register, Volume 90 Issue 72 (Wednesday, April 16, 2025)</title>
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[Federal Register Volume 90, Number 72 (Wednesday, April 16, 2025)]
[Notices]
[Pages 16002-16005]
From the Federal Register Online via the Government Publishing Office [<a href="http://www.gpo.gov">www.gpo.gov</a>]
[FR Doc No: 2025-06453]


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DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE

Drug Enforcement Administration


Victor Augusto Silva, M.D.; Order

    On February 22, 2024, the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA or 
Government) issued an Order to Show Cause and Immediate Suspension of 
Registration (OSC/ISO) to Victor Augusto Silva, M.D., of Tampa, Florida 
(Respondent). Request for Final Agency Action (RFAA), at 1; RFAA 
Exhibit (RFAAX) 1, at 1. The OSC/ISO informed Respondent of the 
immediate suspension of his DEA Certificate of Registration, No. 
FS3590266, pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 824(d), alleging that Respondent's 
continued registration constitutes ``an imminent danger to the public 
health or safety.'' RFAAX 1, at 1 (quoting 21 U.S.C. 824(d)). The OSC/
ISO also proposed the revocation of Respondent's registration, No. 
FS3590266, alleging that Respondent's registration is inconsistent with 
the public interest. Id.
    More specifically, the OSC/ISO alleged that Respondent allowed an 
unauthorized person to use his registration to prescribe controlled 
substances in violation of federal regulations and Florida law. RFAAX 
1, at 1-3. On April 18, 2024, the Government submitted an RFAA to the 
Administrator requesting that the Agency issue a default final order 
revoking Respondent's registration. RFAA, at 1.
    As a preliminary matter, this decision addresses whether or not 
Respondent is in default and finds that he is. Thereafter, the decision 
makes specific factual findings on the alleged violations as set forth 
in the OSC. Next, the decision considers whether Respondent's continued 
registration is inconsistent with the public interest by evaluating the 
found violations in the context of the public interest factors. Where, 
as here, the Agency determines that Respondent's continued registration 
is inconsistent with the public interest, the Respondent is then given 
an opportunity to argue for mitigation of the sanction by establishing 
that he can be trusted with a registration. After carefully reviewing 
the entire record and conducting the analysis as set forth in more 
detail below, the Agency grants the Government's request for final 
agency action and revokes Respondent's registration.

I. Default Determination

    Under 21 CFR 1301.43, a registrant entitled to a hearing who fails 
to file a timely hearing request ``within 30 days after the date of 
receipt of the [OSC] . . . shall be deemed to have waived their right 
to a hearing and to be in default'' unless ``good cause'' is 
established for the failure. 21 CFR 1301.43(a) & (c)(1). In the absence 
of a demonstration of good cause, a registrant who fails to timely file 
an answer also is ``deemed to have waived their right to a hearing and 
to be in default.'' 21 CFR 1301.43(c)(2). Unless excused, a default 
constitutes ``an admission of the factual allegations of the [OSC].'' 
21 CFR 1301.43(e).
    Here, the OSC/ISO notified Respondent of his right to file with DEA 
a written request for a hearing and informed him that if he failed to 
file a hearing request or an answer, he would be deemed to have waived 
his right to a hearing and be in default. RFAAX 1, at 4. Respondent 
requested a hearing on April 2, 2024.\1\ RFAAX 3, at 3. On April 3, 
2024, the Government filed proof that it had served the OSC/ISO on 
Respondent on February 23, 2024. Government's Notice of Service, 
Exhibit A, at 1. Administrative Law Judge (ALJ) Teresa A. Wallbaum 
provided a briefing schedule for any Government motions related to the 
timeliness of Respondent's hearing request with an opportunity for 
Respondent to file a response addressing his reasons for failing to 
file the request for a hearing within the time provided by the OSC/ISO. 
Briefing Order Regarding Timeliness of Request for Hearing, at 1-2. 
Respondent's response to any Government motion was due on April 17, 
2024. Id., at 3. On April 4, 2024, the ALJ reminded Respondent of the 
filing deadline for his response. Order Regarding Status Conference, at 
2. On April 10, 2024, the Government filed a motion to terminate 
proceedings.\2\ RFAAX 3, at 1-2; Government's Motion to Terminate 
Proceedings, at 1. When Respondent failed to file a response by the 
deadline, the ALJ issued an order on April 18, 2024, granting the 
Government's motion and terminating the administrative proceedings. 
RFAAX 3, at 2, 4.
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    \1\ Respondent submitted the hearing request electronically 
after 5:00 p.m. on April 1, 2024. Briefing Order Regarding 
Timeliness of Request for Hearing, at 1 & n.1 (citing 21 CFR 
1316.45).
    \2\ The Government submitted the motion after 5:00 p.m. on April 
9, 2024; the ALJ deemed it filed the following business day. RFAAX 
3, at 2 n.3.
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    The Government's RFAA to the Administrator requested that the 
Agency issue a final order revoking Respondent's registration on the 
basis that his continued registration is inconsistent with the public 
interest. RFAA, at 1 (citing 21 U.S.C. 824(a)(4)). The Government 
requested final agency action ``pursuant to 21 CFR 1301.43(c) and (f) . 
. . , because Respondent has neither timely requested a hearing, nor 
provided answers for the [OSC/ISO].'' Id.
    Under these facts, the Agency finds that the ALJ's termination of 
the proceedings--where Respondent failed to timely file a request for a 
hearing and an answer and did not demonstrate good cause for the 
failures--was appropriate.\3\ See RFAAX 3, at 3-4 (citing 21 CFR 
1301.43(a) & (c)(2)-(f)(1), 1316.47). Thus, the Agency finds that that 
Respondent is in default and has admitted to the factual allegations in 
the OSC/ISO.\4\ 21 CFR 1301.43(e).
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    \3\ Subsequent filings by Respondent, even if viewed as motions 
to excuse the default, also fail to establish good cause for the 
default. 21 CFR 1301.43(f)(2). Both the OSC/ISO and the Order for 
Prehearing Statements provided notice of the requirement to timely 
file an answer. Order for Prehearing Statements, at 2; RFAAX 1, at 
4.
    \4\ The Government's RFAA notes that certain facts alleged in 
the OSC/ISO are incorrect and seeks to correct them. RFAA, at 3 n.2. 
According to the Government, the timeframe alleged in the OSC of 
``June 2023 to December 2023'' should be corrected to ``June 2022, 
to December 2023.'' Id. Thus, the Government seeks to expand the 
timeframe of one of the two OSC/ISO paragraphs (paragraph five) 
containing the details of the allegations of Respondent's unlawful 
prescribing of controlled substances. RFAAX 1, at 3. Although the 
Government may propose corrections to an OSC during a hearing 
process, Judson J. Somerville, M.D., 82 FR 21408, 21408 n.1 (2017) 
(correcting registration number), a registrant's deemed ``admission 
of the factual allegations'' based on a default applies to the facts 
in the OSC only. 21 CFR 1301.43(e) (``A default, unless excused, 
shall be deemed to constitute . . . an admission of the factual 
allegations of the [OSC].''). Accordingly, the Agency is unable to 
deem the modified facts of paragraph five (as proposed by the 
Government in the RFAA) to be admitted. Nor will the Agency deem the 
original facts in that paragraph to be admitted where, as here, the 
Government has asserted that they are incorrect. 21 CFR 1301.43(e).

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II. State and Federal Law Regarding Permitting Unauthorized Use of a 
DEA Registration

    As the Supreme Court stated in Gonzales v. Raich, 545 U.S. 1 
(2005), ``the main objectives of the [Controlled Substances Act (CSA)] 
were to conquer drug abuse and control the legitimate and illegitimate 
traffic in controlled substances.'' 545 U.S. at 12.

    Congress was particularly concerned with the need to prevent the 
diversion of drugs from legitimate to illicit channels. To 
effectuate these goals, Congress devised a closed regulatory system 
making it unlawful to manufacture, distribute, dispense, or possess 
any controlled substance except in a manner authorized by the CSA. . 
. . The CSA and its implementing regulations set forth strict 
requirements regarding registration, labeling and packaging, 
production quotas, drug security, and recordkeeping.

Id. at 12-14.
    According to the CSA's implementing regulations, prescriptions may 
only be issued by an individual practitioner who is ``[a]uthorized to 
prescribe controlled substances by the jurisdiction in which he is 
licensed to practice his profession'' and has either been issued a DEA 
registration or is exempted from registration under DEA regulations. 21 
CFR 1306.03. Furthermore, a lawful controlled substance order or 
prescription is one that is ``issued for a legitimate medical purpose 
by an individual practitioner acting in the usual course of his 
professional practice.'' 21 CFR 1306.04(a). A ``practitioner must 
establish and maintain a bona fide doctor-patient relationship in order 
to act `in the usual course of . . . professional practice' and to 
issue a prescription for a `legitimate medical purpose.' '' Dewey C. 
Mackay, M.D., 75 FR 49956, 49973 (2010). When a registrant entrusts his 
registration to another person, ``this Agency has long held that a 
registrant is strictly liable for [its] misuse.'' Kevin Dennis, M.D., 
78 FR 52787, 52799 (2013).
    Similarly, under Florida law, ``[p]rescribing . . . a legend drug, 
including any controlled substance, other than in the course of the 
physician's professional practice'' is grounds for disciplinary action. 
Fla. Stat. section 458.331(1)(q). Moreover, Florida law states that the 
act of ``[a]iding, assisting, procuring, or advising any unlicensed 
person to practice medicine contrary to [Chapter 458 of Florida 
Statutes Title XXXII] or to a rule of the [Department of Health] or the 
[Board of Medicine]'' is a basis for disciplinary action of a 
physician. Fla. Stat. sections 458.305(a)-(b), 458.331(1)(f). The 
practice of medicine includes ``the prescription for any human disease, 
pain, injury, deformity, or other physical or mental condition.'' Fla. 
Stat. section 458.305(4).
    Based on the above, the Agency finds that it is a violation of both 
Florida and federal law for a registrant to allow a person who is not 
licensed to practice medicine in Florida (and therefore who is not 
authorized to prescribe controlled substances in Florida) to issue 
prescriptions for controlled substances using their DEA registration.

III. Findings of Fact

    In light of Respondent's default, the factual allegations in the 
OSC--other than paragraph 5, which the Government asserts was 
incorrect, supra n.4--are deemed admitted. 21 CFR 1301.43(e). 
Accordingly, the Agency deems as admitted that Respondent allowed B.L., 
the owner of a medical clinic, to prescribe controlled substances using 
Respondent's registration in 2023. RFAAX 1, at 3. B.L. was not a 
licensed medical professional and was not authorized to perform medical 
examinations, make diagnoses, or prescribe controlled substances. Id. 
The Respondent continued to allow an unauthorized person to access his 
registration outside the usual course of professional practice as 
recently as December 2023. Id.
    Accordingly, the Agency finds substantial record evidence that in 
the year 2023 Respondent allowed a person who was not licensed to 
practice medicine, and therefore was not authorized to prescribe 
controlled substances, to access his DEA registration and use it to 
prescribe controlled substances.

IV. Public Interest Determination

A. Legal Background on Public Interest Determinations

    When the CSA's strict requirements are not met, the Attorney 
General ``may deny, suspend, or revoke [a] registration if . . . the 
[registrant's] registration would be `inconsistent with the public 
interest.''' Gonzales v. Oregon, 546 U.S. 243, 251 (2006) (quoting 21 
U.S.C. 824(a)(4)). In the case of a ``practitioner,'' Congress directed 
the Attorney General to consider five factors in making the public 
interest determination. Id.; 21 U.S.C. 823(g)(1)(A-E).\5\
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    \5\ The five factors are:
    (A) The recommendation of the appropriate State licensing board 
or professional disciplinary authority.
    (B) The [registrant's] experience in dispensing, or conducting 
research with respect to controlled substances.
    (C) The [registrant's] conviction record under Federal or State 
laws relating to the manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of 
controlled substances.
    (D) Compliance with applicable State, Federal, or local laws 
relating to controlled substances.
    (E) Such other conduct which may threaten the public health and 
safety.
    21 U.S.C. 823(g)(1)(A-E).
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    The five factors are considered in the disjunctive. Gonzales v. 
Oregon, 546 U.S. at 292-93 (Scalia, J., dissenting) (``It is well 
established that these factors are to be considered in the 
disjunctive,'' quoting In re Arora, 60 FR 4447, 4448 (1995)); Robert A. 
Leslie, M.D., 68 FR 15227, 15230 (2003). Each factor is weighed on a 
case-by-case basis. David H. Gillis, M.D., 58 FR 37507, 37508 (1993); 
see Morall v. Drug Enf't Admin., 412 F.3d 165, 181 (D.C. Cir. 2005) 
(describing the Agency's adjudicative process as ``applying a multi-
factor test through case-by-case adjudication,'' quoting LeMoyne-Owen 
Coll. v. N.L.R.B., 357 F.3d 55, 61 (D.C. Cir. 2004)). Any one factor, 
or combination of factors, may be decisive, David H. Gillis, M.D., 58 
FR 37508, and the Agency ``may give each factor the weight . . . 
deem[ed] appropriate in determining whether a registration should be 
revoked or an application for registration denied.'' Morall, 412 F.3d. 
at 185 n.2 (Henderson, J., concurring) (quoting Robert A. Smith, M.D., 
70 FR 33207, 33208 (2007)); see also Penick Corp. v. Drug Enf't Admin., 
491 F.3d 483, 490 (D.C. Cir. 2007).
    Moreover, while the Agency is required to consider each of the 
factors, it ``need not make explicit findings as to each one.'' MacKay 
v. Drug Enf't Admin., 664 F.3d 808, 816 (10th Cir. 2011) (quoting 
Volkman v. U. S. Drug Enf't Admin., 567 F.3d 215, 222 (6th Cir. 2009)); 
Jones Total Health Care Pharmacy, LLC v. Drug Enf't Admin., 881 F.3d 
823, 830 (11th Cir. 2018); Hoxie v. Drug Enf't Admin., 419 F.3d 477, 
482 (6th Cir. 2005). ``In short, . . . the Agency is not required to 
mechanically count up the factors and determine how many favor the 
Government and how many favor the registrant. Rather, it is an inquiry 
which focuses on protecting the public interest; what matters is the 
seriousness of the registrant's misconduct.'' Jayam Krishna-Iyer, M.D., 
74 FR 459, 462 (2009). Accordingly, as the Tenth Circuit has 
recognized, Agency decisions have explained that findings under a 
single factor can support the

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revocation of a registration. MacKay, 664 F.3d at 821.

B. Respondent's Continued Registration Is Inconsistent With the Public 
Interest

    While the Agency has considered all the public interest factors of 
21 U.S.C. 823(g)(1),\6\ the Government's evidence in support of its 
prima facie case for sanction is confined to Factors B and D. RFAAX 1, 
at 3. Evidence is considered under Factors B and D when it reflects 
compliance or non-compliance with laws related to controlled substances 
and experience dispensing controlled substances. Kareem Hubbard, M.D., 
87 FR 21156, 21162 (2022).
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    \6\ As to Factor A, there is no record evidence of disciplinary 
action against Respondent's state medical license. 21 U.S.C. 
823(g)(1)(A). State authority to practice medicine is ``a necessary, 
but not a sufficient condition for registration.'' Robert A. Leslie, 
M.D., 68 FR 15230. Therefore, ``[t]he fact that the record contains 
no evidence of a recommendation by a state licensing board does not 
weigh for or against a determination as to whether continuation of 
the Respondent's DEA certification is consistent with the public 
interest.'' Roni Dreszer, M.D., 76 FR 19434, 19444 (2011). As to 
Factor C, there is no evidence in the record that Respondent has 
been convicted of any federal or state law offense ``relating to the 
manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of controlled substances.'' 
21 U.S.C. 823(g)(1)(C). However, as Agency cases have noted, ``the 
absence of such a conviction is of considerably less consequence in 
the public interest inquiry'' and is therefore not dispositive. 
Dewey C. MacKay, M.D., 75 FR 49973. As to Factor E, the Government's 
evidence fits squarely within the parameters of Factors B and D and 
does not raise ``other conduct which may threaten the public health 
and safety.'' 21 U.S.C. 823(g)(1)(E). Accordingly, Factor E does not 
weigh for or against Respondent.
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    Here, the Respondent's conduct reflects negative experience in 
prescribing with respect to controlled substances. See supra Section 
III. Moreover, the Agency found substantial record evidence that in the 
year 2023 Respondent allowed a person who was not licensed to practice 
medicine, and therefore was not authorized to prescribe controlled 
substances, to access his DEA registration and use it to prescribe 
controlled substances. Accordingly, there is substantial record 
evidence in support of the Agency's finding that in 2023 Respondent 
committed violations of both Florida state law and federal controlled 
substance regulations, namely 21 CFR 1306.04(a) and Fla. Stat. section 
458.331(f).
    The Agency further finds that after balancing the factors of 21 
U.S.C. 823(g)(1), Respondent's continued registration would be 
``inconsistent with the public interest.'' 21 U.S.C. 824(a)(4). 
Accordingly, the Government satisfied its prima facie burden of showing 
that Respondent's continued registration would be ``inconsistent with 
the public interest.'' 21 U.S.C. 824(a)(4). The Agency also finds that 
there is insufficient mitigating evidence to rebut the Government's 
prima facie case. Thus, the only remaining issue is whether, in spite 
of the public interest determination, Respondent can be trusted with a 
registration.

V. Sanction

    Where, as here, the Government has met the burden of showing that 
Respondent's continued registration is inconsistent with the public 
interest, the burden shifts to Respondent to show why he can be 
entrusted with a registration. Morall, 412 F.3d. at 174; Jones Total 
Health Care Pharmacy, LLC v. Drug Enf't Admin., 881 F.3d 823, 830 (11th 
Cir. 2018); Garrett Howard Smith, M.D., 83 FR 18882, 18904 (2018). The 
issue of trust is necessarily a fact-dependent determination based on 
the circumstances presented by the individual respondent. Jeffrey 
Stein, M.D., 84 FR 46968, 46972 (2019); see also Jones Total Health 
Care Pharmacy, 881 F.3d at 833. Moreover, as past performance is the 
best predictor of future performance, the Agency requires that a 
registrant who has committed acts inconsistent with the public interest 
accept responsibility for those acts and demonstrate that it will not 
engage in future misconduct. See Jones Total Health Care Pharmacy, 881 
F.3d at 833; ALRA Labs, Inc. v. Drug Enf't Admin., 54 F.3d 450, 452 
(7th Cir. 1995). The Agency requires a registrant's unequivocal 
acceptance of responsibility. Janet S. Pettyjohn, D.O., 89 FR 82639, 
82641 (2024); Mohammed Asgar, M.D., 83 FR 29569, 29573 (2018); see also 
Jones Total Health Care Pharmacy, 881 F.3d at 830-31. In addition, a 
registrant's candor during the investigation and hearing is an 
important factor in determining acceptance of responsibility and the 
appropriate sanction. See Jones Total Health Care Pharmacy, 881 F.3d at 
830-31; Hoxie, 419 F.3d at 483-84. Further, the Agency considers the 
egregiousness and extent of the misconduct as significant factors in 
determining the appropriate sanction. See Jones Total Health Care 
Pharmacy, 881 F.3d at 834 & n.4. The Agency also considers the need to 
deter similar acts by the respondent and by the community of 
registrants. Jeffrey Stein, M.D., 84 FR 46972-73.
    Here, Respondent filed an untimely hearing request, did not file an 
answer, and was found to be in default. RFAAX 3, at 3-4. Thus, there is 
no record evidence that Respondent takes responsibility, let alone 
unequivocal responsibility, for the misconduct. Accordingly, he has not 
convinced the Agency that his future controlled-substance-related 
actions will comply with the CSA such that he can be entrusted with the 
responsibilities of a registration.
    Further, the interests of specific and general deterrence weigh in 
favor of revocation. Respondent's conduct in this matter concerns the 
CSA's ``strict requirements regarding registration'' and, therefore, 
goes to the heart of the CSA's ``closed regulatory system'' 
specifically designed ``to conquer drug abuse and to control the 
legitimate and illegitimate traffic in controlled substances.'' 
Gonzales v. Raich, 545 U.S. 1, 12-14 (2005). To permit Respondent to 
continue to maintain a registration under these circumstances would 
send a dangerous message that compliance with the law is not essential 
to maintaining a registration.
    In sum, Respondent has not offered any credible evidence on the 
record that rebuts the Government's case for revocation of his 
registration, and Respondent has not demonstrated that he can be 
entrusted with the responsibility of registration. Accordingly, the 
Agency will order the revocation of Respondent's registration.

Order

    Pursuant to 28 CFR 0.100(b) and the authority vested in me by 21 
U.S.C. 824(a) and 21 U.S.C. 823(g)(1), I hereby revoke DEA Certificate 
of Registration No. FS3590266 issued to Victor Augusto Silva, M.D. 
Further, pursuant to 28 CFR 0.100(b) and the authority vested in me by 
21 U.S.C. 824(a) and 21 U.S.C. 823(g)(1), I hereby deny any other 
pending application of Victor Augusto Silva, M.D., for registration in 
Florida. This Order is effective May 16, 2025.

Signing Authority

    This document of the Drug Enforcement Administration was signed on 
April 10, 2025, by Acting Administrator Derek Maltz. That document with 
the original signature and date is maintained by DEA. For 
administrative purposes only, and in compliance with requirements of 
the Office of the Federal Register, the undersigned DEA Federal 
Register Liaison Officer has been authorized to sign and submit the 
document in electronic format for publication, as an official document 
of DEA. This administrative process in no way alters

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the legal effect of this document upon publication in the Federal 
Register.

Heather Achbach,
Federal Register Liaison Officer, Drug Enforcement Administration.
[FR Doc. 2025-06453 Filed 4-15-25; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 4410-09-P


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Indexed from Federal Register on April 16, 2025.

This is legal information, not legal advice. Laws vary by jurisdiction and change frequently. Always verify current law with official sources and consult a licensed attorney in your jurisdiction for advice on your specific situation.